No. I don’t know if he was or not; you never know about anyone other than yourself; but I have no reason to think he was because I’ve never come across any real evidence to suggest it. He was publically accused of molesting a kid in 1993 and criminally charged with molesting a different kid in 2003, but, following the logic of the law that says people are innocent until proven guilty; which is stupid because neither guilt nor innocence should ever be assumed; I think he’s “innocent” in both cases.
That’s based on my assessment of the facts presented. I think both cases were motivated by money and malice more than anything, but that says nothing about him being a pedophile in the general sense of simply being sexually or romantically attracted to kids. That’s much harder, if not impossible, to prove either way. As far as I know, it’s certainly possible. It’s just that I don’t have any evidence to sway my opinion either way, which makes the one-sided title question very easy to answer.